ldep september 2009.pdf

(125 KB) Pobierz
SEDD
- 3 -
version I
September 2009
Nr 1. Differential clinical diagnosis for Kaposi’s sarcoma would include the following
diseases:
1) hemangiomas;
4) erythema multiforme;
2) pemphigoid;
5) purpura.
3) erythroplakia;
The correct answer is:
A. 1,3,4.
B. 2,3,5.
C. 3,4,5.
D. 1,3,5.
E. 1,2,4.
Nr 2. Squamous cell carcinoma may occur anywhere in the mouth, but the most
common sites are:
1) the hard palate;
4) the floor of the mouth;
2) the lateral border of the tongue;
5) the dorsal surface of the tongue.
3) the lips;
The correct answer is:
A. 1,2.
B. 3,4.
C. 3,5.
D. 2,5.
E. 2,4.
Nr 3. Which opinion associated with oral melanoma is not correct ?
A. melanoma can arise from previously existing pigmented lesions, particularly the
ones with a history of trauma.
B. melanomas occur more frequently in men than women and often over the age of 50.
C. oral melanoma is less dangerous than cutaneous counterpart because of late wide
metastasis.
D. the most frequent sites for occurrence are the maxillary alveolar ridge and palate.
E. the main distinguishing clinical features include: multiple colors, ill defined margins
and satellite lesions.
Nr 4. Because of a risk of carcinoma, biopsy is mandatory for the following diseases:
1) erythroleukoplakia;
4) speckled erythroplakia;
2) leukoedema;
5) white sponge nevus.
3) linea alba buccalis;
The correct answer is:
A. 1,5.
B. 1,4.
C. 2,4.
D. 3,5.
E. 2,3.
Nr 5. Which of the following diseases are caused by the HPV virus?
1) Verruca vulgaris;
4) herpangina;
2) hand – foot and mouth diseases;
5) condyloma acuminatum;
3) oral squamous papilloma;
6) Varicella.
The correct answer is:
A. 1,3,4.
B. 3,5,6.
C. 2,3,5.
D. 1,3,5.
E. 1,2,6.
Nr 6. To obtain maximum retention for amalgam restoration in a large Black II class
cavity one should:
1) prepare the cavity walls that are divergent towards the occlusal surface;
2) prepare the cavity walls that are convergent towards the occlusal surface;
3) prepare the cavity walls that are parallel;
4) use pins;
5) prepare the edge of the cavity to have an angle of 45º.
The correct answer is:
A. 1,4.
B. 2,4.
C. 3,5.
D. 1,5.
E. 3,4.
 
SEDD
- 4 -
version I
September 2009
Nr 7. A 25 year patient comes to a dental practice for a dental examination. The
doctor observes on the dry buccal surface of the maxillary first molar a white lesion
with an intact, hard surface along the gingival margin. The cause of this lesion was:
A. the damage of the enamel due to brushing.
B. dental plaque accumulation along the gingival margin.
C. tetracycline treatment in childhood.
D. excessive fluoride intake during the development of the tooth.
E. a failure of endodontic treatment.
Nr 8. Choose from the list below the material used for the final restoration in
atraumatic restorative treatment:
A. light cured composite material.
D. compomer.
B. amalgam.
. chemically cured composite material.
C. glass ionomer.
Nr 9. Choose the correct answer in which only salivary antibacterial agents are
mentioned:
A. lysozyme, statherin, amylase.
B. glucosyltransferase, proline rich proteins, calcium ions.
C. lysozyme, lactoferin, agglutinins.
D. phosphate ions, lysozyme, collagenase.
E. mutan, agglutinins, ribonuclease.
Nr 10. The treatment of the early stages of caries (on x-ray reaching the
enamel/dentin junction) in patients at high risk of caries needs:
A. only non-invasive treatment – fluoride treatment.
B. invasive treatment like cavity preparation and restoration and fluoride treatment.
C. only invasive treatment.
D. control visits every 3 months.
E. none of these answers is correct.
Nr 11. Black`s Class VI lesion classification is defined as appearing:
A. only on the incisal edge of the central incisors.
B. only on the incisal edge of the incisors.
C. only on the cusps of premolars.
D. only on the cusps of molars and premolars.
E. none of the above answers is correct.
Nr 12. Read carefully the text below which contains true and false information
referring to the procedure called: „Walking Bleach”:
1) professional bleaching; 4) a method for non vital teeth;
2) a method of intensive bleaching; 5) trays are necessary;
3) a method for vital teeth; 6) home bleaching.
Choose the answer that includes the true information about the procedure called
“Walking Bleach”:
A. 1,2.
B. 2,4.
C. 3,6.
D. 1,4.
E. 5,6.
SEDD
- 5 -
version I
September 2009
Nr 13. A patient is at high risk for the development of caries if the following factors
occur:
1) a high sucrose diet;
4) the presence of secondary caries;
2) an increased salivary flow;
5) high Mutans s . content in saliva;
3) the lack of active carious lesions;
6) no plaque accumulation.
The correct answer is:
A. 1,2,3.
B. 1,3,5.
C. 2,5,6.
D. 1,4,5.
E. 3,4,6.
Nr 14. Below find several methods (or materials) used in local treatment of dentin
hypersensitivity. Which of them is widely used after cavity preparation to prevent
postoperative sensitivity?
A. CO 2 laser irradiation.
D. adhesive system containing glutar aldehyde.
B. calcium phosphate.
E. fluoride varnishes.
C. calcium hydroxide.
Nr 15. Dentin hypersensitivity after cavity preparation depends on some factor(s).
Indicate which factor(s) from the list below affect(s) it:
A. thickness of remaining dentin.
B. smear layer presence in the cavity.
C. patient’s age.
D. localization of the cavity.
E. all the listed factors can affect dentin hypersensitivity.
Nr 16. Choose from the statements below this one which contains false information
about the DMF number:
A. the value of DMF depends on the activity of carious processes.
B. is used in caries prevalence determination.
C. if DMF equals 1, because D is 1, it means that one tooth is cavitated by primary or
secondary caries.
D. the DMF number can be decreased by carious tissue removal and restoration
placement.
E. the DMF number can be used to evaluate the effectiveness of prophylactic actions.
Nr 17. Choose from the list below the answers containing all indications for flowable
composite clinical use. Flowable composites should be used as:
1) a marginal repair material;
2) a pit and fissure sealant;
3) the first increment placed in the cavity;
4) extensive restorations on the occlusal surface of molars.
The correct answer is:
A. only 1.
B. 1,2.
C. 1,3.
D. 1,3,4.
E. 1,2,3
 
SEDD
- 6 -
version I
September 2009
Nr 18. During dental examination on the facial surface near the gingival edge of the
tooth 13 opacity was discovered when the tooth was desiccated. The area was
translucent when hydrated. The enamel surface examined with an explorer was
smooth. The most probable diagnosis of the opacity is:
A. normal enamel.
. dentinal caries.
B. incipient caries.
. circular caries.
C. arrested caries.
Nr 19. The shape of an early carious change, developing in enamel of class I cavity,
is a triangle with the base at DEJ and the tip directed towards an outer surface of the
tooth. In enamel of which class of cavity can the identical morphology be observed?
A. class II.
B. class III.
C. class IV.
D. class V.
E. none of the mentioned.
Nr 20. Abfraction develops mainly due to:
A. improper toothbrushing.
D. heavy eccentric occlusal forces.
B. acidic action.
. mechanical wear as a result of parafunctional
C. enzymatic action.
movements.
Nr 21. Which sentences are true concerning arrested caries?
1) caries without progression;
2) a type of chronic caries;
3) progress is stopped due to fluoride, after changing the oral environment;
4) enamel within this lesion is more susceptible for further caries attacks.
The correct answer is:
A. only 1.
B. 1,2.
C. 1,3.
D. 1,2,3.
E. all mentioned above.
Nr 22. Which from the listed factors is not important for the strength of the connection
between adhesive system and tooth tissue?
A. the type of adhesive system used.
B. the type of tissue undergoing bonding.
C. dentin factors such as dentinal sclerosis.
D. technique sensitivity, e.g. dentin desiccation.
E. the type of resin composite material used.
Nr 23. Indicate the false statement about resistance and retention form for
the Class II cavity, to be restored with amalgam:
A. the gingival floor of the proximal preparation should be flat.
B. retentive undercuts must be cut into the dentin of the facial and lingual walls of the
proximal walls.
C. to provide enough resistance, the extension into the occlusal surface must have a
faciolingual dimension of one fourth the distance between the facial and lingual cusp
tips.
D. for preparing retentive undercuts with a bur, it is advisable to use a handpiece at
low speed.
E. if the occlusal extension is narrow, a short retention groove should be prepared in
the dentin of the gingival wall to supplement the resistance form.
 
SEDD
- 7 -
version I
September 2009
Nr 24. Active lesions of root caries usually are:
A. soft or leathery in consistency.
B. localized often in some distance from the gingival margin.
C. not covered with plaque.
D. as hard as the surrounding healthy root surface.
E. chalky white.
Nr 25. The proper definition of abfraction is:
A. a saucer-shaped notch, which is a result of chemical dissolution of the tooth tissue.
B. a V-shaped notch, which is a loss or wearing away of tooth structure due to
mechanical forces.
C. a notch defect, which is a result of a flexure of the cervical area under heavy
occlusal stress.
D. answers B and C are correct.
E. none of the above is correct.
Nr 26. Indicate the true statement concerning acid etching of enamel:
A. acid etching removes about 10 micrometer of the enamel surface.
B. acid etching creates a microporous layer from 5 to 50 micrometers deep.
C. two enamel-etching patterns have been described.
D. in the type I pattern there is a predominant dissolution of the peripheral region of the
prism.
E. answers A and B are correct.
Nr 27. Which zone of an incipient lesion has the largest pore volume?
A. the translucent zone.
D. the surface zone.
B. the dark zone.
E. the subtransparent zone.
C. the body of the lesion.
Nr 28. An attack of severe sharp pain, which lasts seconds to minutes and appears
only during the day, can be provoked by touching the certain areas of the gingiva. This
picture is typical of:
A. trigeminal inflammation.
D. temporo-mandibular joint inflammation.
B. trigeminal neuralgia.
E. maxillary sinusitis.
C. periapical abscess.
Nr 29. Resin based sealers, such as AHplus, are hard, which sometimes leads to
difficulty with their removal from the canal for retreatment. Which of the methods from
listed below is the most effective in AHplus removal from the canal?
A. dissolve the paste with EDTA rinse.
B. dissolve the paste with 10% urea peroxide.
C. dissolve the paste with intracanal dressing containing chloroform placed in the canal
for 2-3 days.
D. crumble paste with ultrasonic energy, remove with thin hand files.
E. mechanically remove the paste with GG and Peeso drills.

Plik z chomika:

Inne pliki z tego folderu:

Inne foldery tego chomika:

Zgłoś jeśli naruszono regulamin